Israel vs Hamas?
Why didn't God protect Israel in 70 AD when Rome invaded Israel and burned the temple etc?
Rom 2:29
but he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Mark 2:13-15
13 And he went forth again by the sea side; and all the multitude resorted unto him, and he taught them. 14 And as he passed by, he saw Levi the son of Alphæus sitting at the place of toll, and he saith unto him, Follow me. And he arose and followed him. 15 And it came to pass, that he was sitting at meat in his house, and many publicans and sinners sat down with Jesus and his disciples: for there were many, and they followed him.
Vs13 Jesus teaches attracts the multitude and teaches them by the sea
Vs14 Jesus passed by Levi (Matthew) and says "follow me" and Levi arises and follows him. He seems to be a tax collector
I’m coming Master…zombie like?
Vs15 Levi (Matthew) seems to have a large feast at his house with Jesus, the disciples and many sinners and publicans in attendance.
Mark 2:16-20
16 And the scribes of the Pharisees, when they saw that he was eating with the sinners and publicans, said unto his disciples, How is it that he eateth and drinketh with publicans and sinners? 17 And when Jesus heard it, he saith unto them, They that are whole have no need of a physician, but they that are sick: I came not to call the righteous, but sinners. 18 And John's disciples and the Pharisees were fasting: and they come and say unto him, Why do John's disciples and the disciples of the Pharisees fast, but thy disciples fast not? 19 And Jesus said unto them, Can the sons of the bridechamber fast, while the bridegroom is with them? as long as they have the bridegroom with them, they cannot fast. 20 But the days will come, when the bridegroom shall be taken away from them, and then will they fast in that day.
Vs16 Not sure if the scribes were attending or simply looking on, but they seemed to wonder aloud why Jesus was eating with publicans and sinners???
Vs17 They that are whole have no need of a physician, but they that are sick: I came not to call the righteous, but sinners.
Vs18 Pharisees ask Jesus if John's disciples fast an hour disciples fast, why don't yours?
Vs19 What is Jesus's response in verse 19? What does this mean?
Vs20 What does verse 20 mean?
Mark 2:21-22
21 No man seweth a piece of undressed cloth on an old garment: else that which should fill it up taketh from it, the new from the old, and a worse rent is made. 22 And no man putteth new wine into old wine-skins; else the wine will burst the skins, and the wine perisheth, and the skins: but they put new wine into fresh wine-skins.
Vs21 What does Jesus mean by verse 21?
Vs22 What does Jesus mean by verse 22?
In the first example, the new patch shrinks and destroys the old garment.
In the second example, the new wine expands and destroys the old wine skin.
Weird how he seems to use opposite examples to explain the same principle. I wonder why?
Mark 2:23-24
23 And it came to pass, that he was going on the sabbath day through the grainfields; and his disciples began, as they went, to pluck the ears. 24 And the Pharisees said unto him, Behold, why do they on the sabbath day that which is not lawful?
Vs23 Jesus and us disciples are going through grain fields on the Sabbath. As they go through the field, the disciples are plucking the ears of grain.
Vs24 The Pharisees ask Jesus why his disciples are doing unlawful things on the Sabbath.
Seems as if the Pharisees strategy is to trap Jesus by using his disciples against him since this is the second time they have tried.
And of course trying to accuse Jesus of breaking the Sabbath.
I'm assuming that the term "plucking" is considered work on the Sabbath? I'm assuming plucking is considered reaping or threshing?
What law might Jesus and his disciples have broken?
Exo 31:15 Six days shall work be done, but on the seventh day is a sabbath of solemn rest, holy to Jehovah: whosoever doeth any work on the sabbath day, he shall surely be put to death.
Num 15:32-36 - Man is stoned for gathering sticks on the Sabbbath
Jer 17:20-27 - God rips Judah for profaning the Sabbath by bearing a burden, and doing work on the Sabbath. They didn't keep the Sabbath holy.
You wonder if the Pharisees did have somewhat of a point.
Jesus responds:
Mark 2:25-28
25 And he said unto them, Did ye never read what David did, when he had need, and was hungry, he, and they that were with him? 26 How he entered into the house of God when Abiathar was high priest, and ate the showbread, which it is not lawful to eat save for the priests, and gave also to them that were with him? 27 And he said unto them, The sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath: 28 so that the Son of man is lord even of the sabbath.
So Jesus responds to the Pharisees accusation by paraphrasing 1 Sam 21:1-6 which we will read in a minute.
Vs25 did you ever read what David did when he was hungry and had need and also they that were with him?
Jesus's strategy is to equate himself and his actions with David and his actions. So he is equating himself with David.
Jesus equals David in this passage
Vs26 how David entered into the house of God when Abiathar was the high priest, And they ate the showbread which wasn't lawful for David to eat. It was only lawful for the priests to eat. But David also gave it to his men too.
There doesn't seem to be any mention of the Sabbath in this passage. Why would Jesus use this passage to defend his actions of breaking the Sabbath when there is no mention of the Sabbath in this passage?
And oddly enough Jesus says that it was unlawful for David to eat the bread. And also unlawful for his men to eat the bread.
How could breaking the law by David prove that Jesus and his man were justified in their actions of breaking the Sabbath??
Vs27 Jesus said the Sabbath was made for man and not man for the Sabbath.
What does this mean?
How is the Sabbath made for man when God had so many laws to tell man to rest and do no work on the Sabbath?
How does Jesus's reference to David unlawfully eating the showbread prove that the Sabbath was made for man and not the man for the Sabbath?
Vs28 so the son of man is Lord even of the Sabbath
What does this mean?
How does David's actions suggest Jesus is the Lord of the Sabbath?
Again how does this passage in any way suggest that the son of man is Lord of the Sabbath?
The only way I know to answer these questions is by reading 1 Samuel 21:1-6
Set the context before reading this…
1Sa 21:1-3
1 Then came David to Nob to Ahimelech the priest: and Ahimelech came to meet David trembling, and said unto him, Why art thou alone, and no man with thee? 2 And David said unto Ahimelech the priest, The king hath commanded me a business, and hath said unto me, Let no man know anything of the business whereabout I send thee, and what I have commanded thee: and I have appointed the young men to such and such a place. 3 Now therefore what is under thy hand? give me five loaves of bread in my hand, or whatsoever there is present.
Vs1 Notice that David comes to Ahimelech (Jesus used the name Abiathar) and Ahimelech is trembling. Why?
Vs1 Ahimelech says why are you alone and no one is with you?
Why? He is terrified
Vs2 David lies to Ahimelech and says that king Saul has him on a secret mission. And he says not to tell anybody about it and that I have men with me hidden in a secret place.
Again David lies to the priest.
Vs23 David asks Ahimelech what is under his hand and then asks for five loaves of bread or whatever there is to eat.
David deceitfully uses his high rank and position to scare the priest into giving him loaves of bread that are unlawful for his men to eat.
Is there any mention so far of this occurring on the Sabbath?
Does it seem a little odd that Jesus would use David's underhanded event in defense of his disciples actions of breaking the Sabbath?
1 Sam 21:4-6
4 And the priest answered David, and said, There is no common bread under my hand, but there is holy bread; if only the young men have kept themselves from women. 5 And David answered the priest, and said unto him, Of a truth women have been kept from us about these three days; when I came out, the vessels of the young men were holy, though it was but a common journey; how much more then to-day shall their vessels be holy? 6 So the priest gave him holy bread; for there was no bread there but the showbread, that was taken from before Jehovah, to put hot bread in the day when it was taken away.
Vs4 The priest tells David that there is not common bread but there is holy bread. And the only way that he'll give it to them is if his men have not been with women.
Why? I suppose women would make them ceremoniously impure? Ex 19:15
There is no Wonder bread, only holy bread.
Vs5 David says, women have been kept from us about these 3 days. The men were holy then and how much more so are they now?
So please give us the bread :-)?
I suppose they started running from Saul 3 days prior?
Vs6 So Ahimelech gives David the holy bread or show bread that had been taken from the presence of the Lord and replaced with hot bread.
In this account from 1 Sam 21, there is no mention of it being the Sabbath. I wonder why Jesus responds to the accusation of doing that which is unlawful on the Sabbath with an example that does not mention the Sabbath at all??
Any thoughts?
I think this question/answer is in the form of a riddle. Because nothing that David did himself in 1 Sam 21 suggests that it occurs on the Sabbath unless you view David's answer to Ahimelech (Abiathar) as being Jesus' metaphor answer to the question the Pharisees ask him in Mark 2.
They ask:
Mar 2:24
24 And the Pharisees said unto him, Behold, why do they on the sabbath day that which is not lawful?
Jesus responds by referencing David or by putting himself in David's situation in 1 Sam 21.
In particular, Jesus responds as David did in 1 Sam 21:5:
1Sa 21:5
And David answered the priest, and said unto him, Of a truth women have been kept from us about these three days; when I came out, the vessels of the young men were holy, though it was but a common journey; how much more then to-day shall their vessels be holy?
The key in this verse is THREE DAYS spoken of by David/Jesus.
So when David came out on the first day, the "vessels of the young men were holy". And then he says "how much more then to-day shall their vessels be holy?". This would be the THIRD DAY.
So David/Jesus says that they were clean on the first day and even more clean by the third day.
So if we look at the Days that God sets aside for His creation:
2Pe 3:8
But forget not this one thing, beloved, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
Psa 90:4
For a thousand years in thy sight Are but as yesterday when it is past, And as a watch in the night.
Notice that Jesus comes again on the Third Day which is also the Seventh Day and the SABBATH. So when Jesus responded to the Pharisees in Mark 2:24 by referencing David in 1 Sam 21, He was speaking of himself and how his ministry is clean on its arrival on day five and will be even more cleaner upon his coming back on day 7, the Sabbath.
Jesus so incredibly wise!
I hope I explained this so it is understandable. This is one of many instances in the Bible that reference this 7 day/7000 year plan of God.
PS. We are in the early part of Day 7, possible btw the years of 6001 - 6025
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